Was Jesus' Judea "occupied"?
Okay, so this is pretty specific to my context, but I think it bears wider consideration. I have now heard in two consecutive sermons that Rome was an occupying force, were “occupiers,” and/or first-century Judea was “occupied.” While this idea is certainly discernable in the Gospels, it reflects a lack of engagement with real history.

I’m no expert, but I do have a little experience with occupations. I participated in one in 2004 as an American soldier in Iraq. The thing about occupations is that the foreign occupying force maintains tight control over most aspects of daily life. If that’s an agreeable working definition, then Jesus did not live under occupation.